237 research outputs found

    Increased epidermal thickness and abnormal epidermal differentiation in keloid scars

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    Background: The pathogenesis underlying keloid formation is still poorly understood. Research has focused mostly on dermal abnormalities, while the epidermis has not yet been studied. Objectives: To identify differences within the epidermis of mature keloid scars compared with normal skin and mature normotrophic and hypertrophic scars. Methods: Rete ridge formation and epidermal thickness were evaluated in tissue sections. Epidermal proliferation was assessed using immunohistochemistry (Ki67, keratins 6, 16 and 17) and with an in vitro proliferation assay. Epidermal differentiation was evaluated using immunohistochemistry (keratin 10, involucrin, loricrin, filaggrin, SPRR2, SKALP), reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (involucrin) and transmission electron microscopy (stratum corneum). Results: All scars showed flattening of the epidermis. A trend of increasing epidermal thickness correlating to increasing scar abnormality was observed when comparing normal skin, normotrophic scars, hypertrophic scars and keloids. No difference in epidermal proliferation was observed. Only the early differentiation marker involucrin showed abnormal expression in scars. Involucrin was restricted to the granular layer in healthy skin, but showed panepidermal expression in keloids. Normotrophic scars expressed involucrin in the granular and upper spinous layers, while hypertrophic scars resembled normotrophic scars or keloids. Abnormal differentiation was associated with ultrastructural disorganization of the stratum corneum in keloids compared with normal skin. Conclusions: Keloids showed increased epidermal thickness compared with normal skin and normotrophic and hypertrophic scars. This was not due to hyperproliferation, but possibly caused by abnormal early terminal differentiation, which affects stratum corneum formation. Our findings indicate that the epidermis is associated with keloid pathogenesis and identify involucrin as a potential diagnostic marker for abnormal scarring

    External Quality Assessment on Molecular Tumor Profiling with Circulating Tumor DNA-Based Methodologies Routinely Used in Clinical Pathology within the COIN Consortium

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    BackgroundIdentification of tumor-derived variants in circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA) has potential as a sensitive and reliable surrogate for tumor tissue-based routine diagnostic testing. However, variations in pre(analytical) procedures affect the efficiency of ctDNA recovery. Here, an external quality assessment (EQA) was performed to determine the performance of ctDNA mutation detection work flows that are used in current diagnostic settings across laboratories within the Dutch COIN consortium (ctDNA on the road to implementation in The Netherlands).MethodsAliquots of 3 high-volume diagnostic leukapheresis (DLA) plasma samples and 3 artificial reference plasma samples with predetermined mutations were distributed among 16 Dutch laboratories. Participating laboratories were requested to perform ctDNA analysis for BRAF exon 15, EGFR exon 18–21, and KRAS exon 2–3 using their regular circulating cell-free DNA (ccfDNA) analysis work flow. Laboratories were assessed based on adherence to the study protocol, overall detection rate, and overall genotyping performance.ResultsA broad range of preanalytical conditions (e.g., plasma volume, elution volume, and extraction methods) and analytical methodologies (e.g., droplet digital PCR [ddPCR], small-panel PCR assays, and next-generation sequencing [NGS]) were used. Six laboratories (38%) had a performance score of >0.90; all other laboratories scored between 0.26 and 0.80. Although 13 laboratories (81%) reached a 100% overall detection rate, the therapeutically relevant EGFR p.(S752_I759del) (69%), EGFR p.(N771_H773dup) (50%), and KRAS p.(G12C) (48%) mutations were frequently not genotyped accurately.ConclusionsDivergent (pre)analytical protocols could lead to discrepant clinical outcomes when using the same plasma samples. Standardization of (pre)analytical work flows can facilitate the implementation of reproducible liquid biopsy testing in the clinical routine

    ‘Test n Treat (TnT)’: a cluster-randomised feasibility trial of frequent, rapid-testing and same-day, on-site treatment to reduce rates of chlamydia in high-risk further education college students: statistical analysis plan

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    Background There are high rates of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) in ethnically diverse, sexually active students aged 16–24 years attending London further education (FE) colleges. However, uptake of chlamydia screening remains low. The TnT study aims to assess the feasibility of conducting a future trial in FE colleges to investigate if frequent, rapid, on-site testing and treatment (TnT) reduces chlamydia rates. This article presents the statistical analysis plan for the main study publication as approved and signed off by the Trial Management Group prior to the first data extraction for the final report. Methods/design TnT is a cluster-randomised feasibility trial conducted over 7 months with parallel qualitative and economic assessments. Colleges will be randomly allocated into the intervention (TnT) or the control group (no TnT). Six FE colleges in London will be included. At each college for 2 days, 80 consecutive sexually active students aged 16–24 years (total 480 students across all six colleges) will be recruited from public areas and asked to provide baseline samples. One and 4 months after recruitment intervention colleges will be visited on two consecutive days by the TnT team where participating students will be texted and invited to come for same-day, on-site, rapid chlamydia testing and, if positive, treatment. Participants in the control colleges will receive ‘thank you’ texts 1 and 4 months after recruitment. Seven months after recruitment, participants from both groups will be invited to complete questionnaires and provide samples for TnT. All samples will be tested, and same-day treatment offered to participants with positive results. Key feasibility outcomes include: recruitment rates, testing and treatment uptake rates (at 1 and 4 months) and follow-up rates (at 7 months). Trial registration ISRCTN 58038795. Registered on 31 August 2016

    Paracheck-Pf® accuracy and recently treated Plasmodium falciparum infections: is there a risk of over-diagnosis?

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    BACKGROUND: An assessment of the accuracy of Paracheck Pf, a malaria rapid diagnostic test (RDT) detecting histidine rich protein 2 was undertaken amongst children aged 6-59 months in eastern Democratic Republic of Congo. METHODS: This RDT assessment occurred in conjunction with an ACT efficacy trial. Febrile children were simultaneously screened with both RDT and high quality microscopy and those meeting inclusion criteria were followed for 35 days. RESULTS: 358 febrile children were screened with 180 children recruited for five weeks follow-up. On screening, the RDT accurately diagnosed all 235 true malaria cases, indicating 100% RDT sensitivity. Of the 123 negative slides, the RDT gave 59 false-positive results, indicating 52.0% (64/123) RDT specificity. During follow-up after treatment with an artemisinin-based combination therapy, 98.2% (110/112), 94.6% (106/112), 92.0% (103/112) and 73.5% (50/68) of effectively treated children were still false-positive by RDT at days 14, 21, 28 and 35, respectively. CONCLUSION: Results show that though the use of Paracheck-Pf is as sensitive as microscopy in detecting true malaria cases, a low specificity did present a high frequency of false-positive RDT results. What's more, a duration of RDT false-positivity was found that significantly surpassed the 'fortnight' after effective treatment reported by its manufacturer. Though further research is needed in assessing RDT accuracy, study results showing the presence of frequent false positivity should be taken into consideration to avoid clinicians inappropriately focusing on malaria, not identifying the true cause of illness, and providing unnecessary treatment

    Antennal sensilla of two female anopheline sibling species with differing host ranges

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    BACKGROUND: Volatile odors are important sensory inputs that shape the behaviour of insects, including agricultural pests and disease vectors. Anopheles gambiae s.s. is a highly anthropophilic mosquito and is the major vector for human malaria in sub-Sahara Africa, while Anopheles quadriannulatus, largely due to its zoophilic behaviour, is considered a non-vector species in the same region. Careful studies of olfaction in these sibling species may lead to insights about the mechanisms that drive host preference behaviour. In the present study, the external anatomy of the antenna, the principle olfactory organ in the female mosquito of both species, was examined as an initial step toward more detailed comparisons. METHODS: Scanning electron and light microscopy were used to examine the antennae ultrastructures of adult female An. gambiae s.s. and An. quadriannulatus. Sensory structures, called sensilla, were categorized and counted; their distributions are reported here as well as densities calculated for each species. RESULTS: Both An. gambiae s.s. and An. quadriannulatus bear five classes of sensilla on their antennae: chaetica (bristles), trichodea (hairs), basiconica (pegs), coeloconica (pitted pegs), and ampullacea (pegs in tubes). Female An. quadriannulatus antennae have approximately one-third more sensilla, and a proportionally larger surface area, than female An. gambiae s.s. antennae. CONCLUSION: The same types of sensilla are found on the antennae of both species. While An. quadriannulatus has greater numbers of each sensilla type, sensilla densities are very similar for each species, suggesting that other factors may be more important to such olfactory-driven behaviours as host preference

    Could a simple antenatal package combining micronutritional supplementation with presumptive treatment of infection prevent maternal deaths in sub-Saharan Africa?

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    BACKGROUND: Reducing maternal mortality is a key goal of international development. Our objective was to determine the potential impact on maternal mortality across sub-Saharan Africa of a combination of dietary supplementation and presumptive treatment of infection during pregnancy. Our aim was to demonstrate the importance of antenatal interventions in the fight against maternal mortality, and to stimulate debate about the design of an effective antenatal care package which could be delivered at the lowest level of the antenatal health system or at community level. METHODS: We collated evidence for the effectiveness of antenatal interventions from systematic reviews and controlled trials, and we selected interventions which have demonstrated potential to prevent maternal deaths. We used a model-based analysis to estimate the total reduction in maternal mortality in sub-Saharan Africa which could be achieved by combining these interventions into a single package, based on a WHO systematic review of causes of maternal deaths. RESULTS: Severe hypertensive disorders, puerperal sepsis and anemia are causes of maternal deaths which could be prevented to some extent by prophylactic measures during pregnancy. A package of pills comprising calcium and iron supplements and appropriate anti-microbial and anti-malarial drugs could reduce maternal mortality in sub-Saharan Africa by 8% (range <1% to 20%). This estimate is based on Cochrane Review estimates for the effectiveness of daily calcium supplements in reducing the risk of death/serious morbidity due to hypertensive disorders (RR = 0.80, 95% CI 0.65-0.97), anti-microbial prophylaxis in reducing the odds of puerperal sepsis/postpartum endometritis (OR = 0.49, 95% CI 0.23-1.06), anti-malarial prophylaxis in reducing the risk of severe antenatal anemia (RR = 0.62, 95% CI 0.50-0.78), and iron supplementation in reducing the risk of iron deficiency anemia at term (RR = 0.33, 95% CI 0.16-0.69). CONCLUSION: Maternal mortality could be reduced by a combination of micronutrient supplementation and presumptive treatment of infection during pregnancy. Such an approach could be adopted in resource-poor settings where visits to antenatal clinics are infrequent and would complement existing Safe Motherhood activities

    Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus ST398 in Veal Calf Farming: Human MRSA Carriage Related with Animal Antimicrobial Usage and Farm Hygiene

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    Introduction Recently a specific MRSA sequence type, ST398, emerged in food production animals and farmers. Risk factors for carrying MRSA ST398 in both animals and humans have not been fully evaluated. In this cross-sectional study, we investigated factors associated with MRSA colonization in veal calves and humans working and living on these farms. Methods A sample of 102 veal calf farms were randomly selected and visited from March 2007–February 2008. Participating farmers were asked to fill in a questionnaire (n = 390) to identify potential risk factors. A nasal swab was taken from each participant. Furthermore, nasal swabs were taken from calves (n = 2151). Swabs were analysed for MRSA by selective enrichment and suspected colonies were confirmed as MRSA by using slide coagulase test and PCR for presence of the mecA-gene. Spa types were identified and a random selection of each spa type was tested with ST398 specific PCR. The Sequence Type of non ST398 strains was determined. Data were analyzed using logistic regression analysis. Results Human MRSA carriage was strongly associated with intensity of animal contact and with the number of MRSA positive animals on the farm. Calves were more often carrier when treated with antibiotics, while farm hygiene was associated with a lower prevalence of MRSA. Conclusion This is the first study showing direct associations between animal and human carriage of ST398. The direct associations between animal and human MRSA carriage and the association between MRSA and antimicrobial use in calves implicate prudent use of antibiotics in farm animals

    Efficacy of artesunate-amodiaquine for treating uncomplicated falciparum malaria in sub-Saharan Africa: a multi-centre analysis

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    BACKGROUND: Artesunate and amodiaquine (AS&AQ) is at present the world's second most widely used artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT). It was necessary to evaluate the efficacy of ACT, recently adopted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and deployed over 80 countries, in order to make an evidence-based drug policy. METHODS: An individual patient data (IPD) analysis was conducted on efficacy outcomes in 26 clinical studies in sub-Saharan Africa using the WHO protocol with similar primary and secondary endpoints. RESULTS: A total of 11,700 patients (75% under 5 years old), from 33 different sites in 16 countries were followed for 28 days. Loss to follow-up was 4.9% (575/11,700). AS&AQ was given to 5,897 patients. Of these, 82% (4,826/5,897) were included in randomized comparative trials with polymerase chain reaction (PCR) genotyping results and compared to 5,413 patients (half receiving an ACT). AS&AQ and other ACT comparators resulted in rapid clearance of fever and parasitaemia, superior to non-ACT. Using survival analysis on a modified intent-to-treat population, the Day 28 PCR-adjusted efficacy of AS&AQ was greater than 90% (the WHO cut-off) in 11/16 countries. In randomized comparative trials (n = 22), the crude efficacy of AS&AQ was 75.9% (95% CI 74.6-77.1) and the PCR-adjusted efficacy was 93.9% (95% CI 93.2-94.5). The risk (weighted by site) of failure PCR-adjusted of AS&AQ was significantly inferior to non-ACT, superior to dihydroartemisinin-piperaquine (DP, in one Ugandan site), and not different from AS+SP or AL (artemether-lumefantrine). The risk of gametocyte appearance and the carriage rate of AS&AQ was only greater in one Ugandan site compared to AL and DP, and lower compared to non-ACT (p = 0.001, for all comparisons). Anaemia recovery was not different than comparator groups, except in one site in Rwanda where the patients in the DP group had a slower recovery. CONCLUSION: AS&AQ compares well to other treatments and meets the WHO efficacy criteria for use against falciparum malaria in many, but not all, the sub-Saharan African countries where it was studied. Efficacy varies between and within countries. An IPD analysis can inform general and local treatment policies. Ongoing monitoring evaluation is required

    A critical analysis of the tumour immunosurveillance controversy for 3-MCA-induced sarcomas

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    The cancer immunoediting hypothesis has gained significant footing over the past decade as a result of work performed using sarcomas induced by 3-methylcholanthrene (3-MCA) in mice. Despite the progress made by several groups in establishing evidence for the three phases of immunoediting (elimination, equilibrium and escape), there continues to be active controversy on the nature of interaction between spontaneously formed tumour cells and the immune system during the early phases of tumourigenesis. At the root of this controversy is conflicting and unresolved evidence spanning back to the 1970s regarding the incidence and frequency of 3-MCA-induced sarcomas in immunocompetent mice as compared to immunodeficient mice. In this mini review we provide a critical analysis of both sides of this controversy
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