Predictors of Successful Decannulation Using a Tracheostomy Retainer in Patients with Prolonged Weaning and Persisting Respiratory Failure

Background: For percutaneously tracheostomized patients with prolonged weaning and persisting respiratory failure, the adequate time point for safe decannulation and switch to noninvasive ventilation is an important clinical issue. Objectives: We aimed to evaluate the usefulness of a tracheostomy retainer (TR) and the predictors of successful decannulation. Methods: We studied 166 of 384 patients with prolonged weaning in whom a TR was inserted into a tracheostoma. Patients were analyzed with regard to successful decannulation and characterized by blood gas values, the duration of previous spontaneous breathing, Simplified Acute Physiology Score (SAPS) and laboratory parameters. Results: In 47 patients (28.3%) recannulation was necessary, mostly due to respiratory decompensation and aspiration. Overall, 80.6% of the patients could be liberated from a tracheostomy with the help of a TR. The need for recannulation was associated with a shorter duration of spontaneous breathing within the last 24/48 h (p < 0.01 each), lower arterial oxygen tension (p = 0.025), greater age (p = 0.025), and a higher creatinine level (p = 0.003) and SAPS (p < 0.001). The risk for recannulation was 9.5% when patients breathed spontaneously for 19-24 h within the 24 h prior to decannulation, but 75.0% when patients breathed for only 0-6 h without ventilatory support (p < 0.001). According to ROC analysis, the SAPS best predicted successful decannulation {[}AUC 0.725 (95% CI: 0.634-0.815), p < 0.001]. Recannulated patients had longer durations of intubation (p = 0.046), tracheostomy (p = 0.003) and hospital stay (p < 0.001). Conclusion: In percutaneously tracheostomized patients with prolonged weaning, the use of a TR seems to facilitate and improve the weaning process considerably. The duration of spontaneous breathing prior to decannulation, age and oxygenation describe the risk for recannulation in these patients. Copyright (c) 2012 S. Karger AG, Base

Platelet transfusions reduce fibrinolysis but do not restore platelet function during trauma hemorrhage

National Institute for Health Research (UK) Program Grant for Applied Research (RP-PG-0407- 10036)

The Epstein-Barr Virus G-Protein-Coupled Receptor Contributes to Immune Evasion by Targeting MHC Class I Molecules for Degradation

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a human herpesvirus that persists as a largely subclinical infection in the vast majority of adults worldwide. Recent evidence indicates that an important component of the persistence strategy involves active interference with the MHC class I antigen processing pathway during the lytic replication cycle. We have now identified a novel role for the lytic cycle gene, BILF1, which encodes a glycoprotein with the properties of a constitutive signaling G-protein-coupled receptor (GPCR). BILF1 reduced the levels of MHC class I at the cell surface and inhibited CD8+ T cell recognition of endogenous target antigens. The underlying mechanism involves physical association of BILF1 with MHC class I molecules, an increased turnover from the cell surface, and enhanced degradation via lysosomal proteases. The BILF1 protein of the closely related CeHV15 c1-herpesvirus of the Rhesus Old World primate (80% amino acid sequence identity) downregulated surface MHC class I similarly to EBV BILF1. Amongst the human herpesviruses, the GPCR encoded by the ORF74 of the KSHV c2-herpesvirus is most closely related to EBV BILF1 (15% amino acid sequence identity) but did not affect levels of surface MHC class I. An engineered mutant of BILF1 that was unable to activate G protein signaling pathways retained the ability to downregulate MHC class I, indicating that the immune-modulating and GPCR-signaling properties are two distinct functions of BILF1. These findings extend our understanding of the normal biology of an important human pathogen. The discovery of a third EBV lytic cycle gene that cooperates to interfere with MHC class I antigen processing underscores the importance of the need for EBV to be able to evade CD8+ T cell responses during the lytic replication cycle, at a time when such a large number of potential viral targets are expressed

Viscoelastic haemostatic assay augmented protocols for major trauma haemorrhage (ITACTIC): a randomized, controlled trial

Purpose: Contemporary trauma resuscitation prioritizes control of bleeding and uses major haemorrhage protocols (MHPs) to prevent and treat coagulopathy. We aimed to determine whether augmenting MHPs with Viscoelastic Haemostatic Assays (VHA) would improve outcomes compared to Conventional Coagulation Tests (CCTs). Methods: This was a multi-centre, randomized controlled trial comparing outcomes in trauma patients who received empiric MHPs, augmented by either VHA or CCT-guided interventions. Primary outcome was the proportion of subjects who, at 24 h after injury, were alive and free of massive transfusion (10 or more red cell transfusions). Secondary outcomes included 28-day mortality. Pre-specified subgroups included patients with severe traumatic brain injury (TBI). Results: Of 396 patients in the intention to treat analysis, 201 were allocated to VHA and 195 to CCT-guided therapy. At 24 h, there was no difference in the proportion of patients who were alive and free of massive transfusion (VHA: 67%, CCT: 64%, OR 1.15, 95% CI 0.76–1.73). 28-day mortality was not different overall (VHA: 25%, CCT: 28%, OR 0.84, 95% CI 0.54–1.31), nor were there differences in other secondary outcomes or serious adverse events. In pre-specified subgroups, there were no differences in primary outcomes. In the pre-specified subgroup of 74 patients with TBI, 64% were alive and free of massive transfusion at 24 h compared to 46% in the CCT arm (OR 2.12, 95% CI 0.84–5.34). Conclusion: There was no difference in overall outcomes between VHA- and CCT-augmented-major haemorrhage protocols

Increased B Cell ADAM10 in Allergic Patients and Th2 Prone Mice

ADAM10, as the sheddase of the low affinity IgE receptor (CD23), promotes IgE production and thus is a unique target for attenuating allergic disease. Herein, we describe that B cell levels of ADAM10, specifically, are increased in allergic patients and Th2 prone WT mouse strains (Balb/c and A/J). While T cell help augments ADAM10 expression, Balb WT B cells exhibit increased ADAM10 in the naïve state and even more dramatically increased ADAM10 after anti-CD40/IL4 stimulation compared C57 (Th1 prone) WT B cells. Furthermore, ADAM17 and TNF are reduced in allergic patients and Th2 prone mouse strains (Balb/c and A/J) compared to Th1 prone controls. To further understand this regulation, ADAM17 and TNF were studied in C57Bl/6 and Balb/c mice deficient in ADAM10. C57-ADAM10B-/- were more adept at increasing ADAM17 levels and thus TNF cleavage resulting in excess follicular TNF levels and abnormal secondary lymphoid tissue architecture not noted in Balb-ADAM10B-/-. Moreover, the level of B cell ADAM10 as well as Th context is critical for determining IgE production potential. Using a murine house dust mite airway hypersensitivity model, we describe that high B cell ADAM10 level in a Th2 context (Balb/c WT) is optimal for disease induction including bronchoconstriction, goblet cell metaplasia, mucus, inflammatory cellular infiltration, and IgE production. Balb/c mice deficient in B cell ADAM10 have attenuated lung and airway symptoms compared to Balb WT and are actually most similar to C57 WT (Th1 prone). C57-ADAM10B-/- have even further reduced symptomology. Taken together, it is critical to consider both innate B cell levels of ADAM10 and ADAM17 as well as Th context when determining host susceptibility to allergic disease. High B cell ADAM10 and low ADAM17 levels would help diagnostically in predicting Th2 disease susceptibility; and, we provide support for the use ADAM10 inhibitors in treating Th2 disease