I argue that a criterion of theoretical equivalence due to Clark Glymour
[Nous 11(3), 227-251 (1977)] does not capture an important sense in which two
theories may be equivalent. I then motivate and state an alternative criterion
that does capture the sense of equivalence I have in mind. The principal claim
of the paper is that relative to this second criterion, the answer to the
question posed in the title is "yes", at least on one natural understanding of
Newtonian gravitation.Comment: 27 page