JOOUST Repository (Jaramogi Oginga Odinga University of Science and Technology)

PPM 5103

 1   JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY SCHOOL OF SPATIAL PLANNING AND NATURAL RESOURCE MANAGEMENT  UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF MASTER OF PLANNING  1ST YEAR 1ST SEMESTER 2024/25 APRIL/MAY EXAMS  MAIN CAMPUS   COURSE CODE: PPM 5103   COURSE TITLE: QUANTITATIVE METHODS      ACADEMIC YEAR: 2024/2025 SEMESTER: I     VENUE--------  YEAR OF STUDY: I  DATE: 22/4/2024  SESSION: 9.00-12.00    TIME:    3HOURS      Instructions: 1. Answer  QUESTION ONE and ANY OTHER TWO questions 2. Candidates are advised not to write on the question paper. 3. Candidates must hand in their answer booklets to the invigilator while in the examination room                                     OASIS OF KNOWLEDGE 2  QUESTION 1  a) Using typical examples, explain the data types measured in interval scale: (6 Marks) b) Given the following diagram, explain the difference between precision and accuracy (4 Marks)  c) Consider the following data, which are a sample of upmarket property rental values in KES ‘000: 240.6, 238.2, 236.4, 244.8, 240.7, 241.3, 237.9. i) Determine the range of the data (1 Marks) ii) Calculate the “sum of squares” of the data.  (5 Marks) iii) Calculate the variance of the data. (2 Marks) iv) Calculate the standard deviation of the data. (2 Marks)  QUESTION 2  Given the following data on forest cover on forest cover at five locations over a 50-year period, demonstrate the procedure of testing the null hypothesis that there is no variation in forest cover among the five sites if F0.05(1),3,15 = 3.29, show the following steps in your calculations:  Time For1 For2 For3 For4 Yr10 60.8 68.7 69.6 61.9 Yr20 67.0 67.7 77.1 64.2 Yr30 65.0 75.0 75.2 63.1 Yr40 68.6 73.3 71.5 66.7 Yr50 61.7 71.8  60.3 i = 1 2 3 4 n = 5 5 4 5  = 323.1 356.5 293.4 316.2  = 64.62 71.30 73.35 63.24  = 1289.2    ?̅?𝒊𝒋 = 67.9     = 479.7     3   = 338.9     = 140.8    Within-groups (error) SS  = Total SS - Groups SS = 479.6874 - 338.9373   = 140.7501 Total DF = N-1 = 19 – 1 = 18 Group DF = k – 1= 4 – 1 = 3 Within-groups (error) DF = N - k = 19 - 4 = 15 Within-groups (error) DF = Total DF - Groups DF = 18 - 3 = 15  i) Group mean squares (MS) (5 Marks) ii) Error mean squares (MS) (5 Marks) iii) F-statistic (5 Marks) iv) Interpretation of the above results (5 Marks)  QUESTION 3  Given the following information, discuss Pearson’s Product Moment Correlation Coefficient based on: a) Principles in bivariate correlation (4 Marks) b) The boundary limits of r (4 Marks) c) Contrast with regression (4 Marks) d) Coefficient of determination r2 (4 Marks) e) Standard Error (4 Marks)     4  QUESTION 4  Five body weights, in grams, collected from a population of rodent body weights are:  66.1, 77.1, 74.6, 61.8, 71.5. a) Compute the "sum of squares" and the variance of these data using the following equations respectively:  (4 Marks)  (4 Marks) b) Compute the "sum of squares" and the variance of these data by using the following equations respectively:  (4 Marks)  (4 Marks) c) Outline the advantages of using the “machine formula” (4 Marks)  QUESTION 5  a) The following computer-based analysis shows the characteristics of 14 census tracts: total population (Pop), median years of schooling (School), total employment (Employ), employment in health services (Health), and median home value (Home). You would like to investigate what "factors" might explain most of the variability. (8 Marks)   Unrotated Factor Loadings and Communalities Variable   Factor1 Factor2 Factor3 Factor4 Factor5 Communality Pop         -0.972 -0.149 0.006 0.170 -0.067 1.000 School      -0.545 -0.715 -0.415 -0.140 0.001 1.000 Employ      -0.989 -0.005 0.089 0.083 0.085 1.000 Health      -0.847 0.352 0.344 -0.200 -0.022 1.000 Home         0.303 -0.797 0.523 0.005 0.002 1.000 Variance    3.0289 1.2911 0.5725 0.0954 0.0121 5.0000 % Var        0.606 0.258 0.114 0.019 0.002 1.000   Sorted Unrotated Factor Loadings and Communalities Variable   Factor1 Factor2 Factor3 Factor4 Factor5 Communality Employ      -0.989 -0.005 0.089 0.083 0.085 1.000 Pop         -0.972 -0.149 0.006 0.170 -0.067 1.000 Health      -0.847 0.352 0.344 -0.200 -0.022 1.000 Home         0.303 -0.797 0.523 0.005 0.002 1.000 School      -0.545 -0.715 -0.415 -0.140 0.001 1.000 Variance    3.0289 1.2911 0.5725 0.0954 0.0121 5.0000  5  % Var        0.606 0.258 0.114 0.019 .002 1.000   Factor Score Coefficients Variable   Factor1   Factor2   Factor3   Factor4   Factor5 Pop         -0.321    -0.116     0.011     1.782    -5.511 School      -0.180    -0.553    -0.726    -1.466     0.060 Employ      -0.327    -0.004     0.155     0.868     6.988 Health      -0.280     0.272     0.601    -2.098    -1.829 Home         0.100    -0.617     0.914     0.049     0.129  b) Given the following information: i) Discuss the concept of linear regression 8 Marks ii)  Compute the regression coefficient “b) 1 Marks iii) Compute the Y-intercept “a” 1 Marks iv) Provide an interpretation of both “b” and “a” 2 Marks       6   SN USEFUL FORMULAE 1.  2.  3.  4.  5.  6.  7.  8.  9.   

QUANTITATIVE METHODS

AEE: 6111

 JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY  SCHOOL OF AGRICULTURAL AND FOOD SCIENCES   FIRST YEAR FIRST SEMESTER UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF DOCTOR OF PHILOSOPHY IN AGRICULTURAL EXTENSION   2024/2025 ACADEMIC YEAR                             COURSE CODE: AEE: 6111                         STREAM: PhD. Agricultural Extension        COURSE TITLE: Innovations for Agricultural Development VENUE: DATE:         EXAM SESSION: TIME: ______________________________________________________________________ Instructions: 1. Answer Any THREE Questions  2. Candidates are advised not to write on the question paper. 3. Answers to Questions must be written in the Answer Booklets 4. Candidates must hand in their answer booklets to the invigilator while in the examination room.                   OASIS OF KNOWLEDGESECTION A: [20 Marks] 1. Leveraging Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) is a key consideration for designing agricultural policy interventions that enhance innovation adoption among smallholder farmers. Discuss.                               [20 marks]  2. Women and youth are increasingly playing crucial role in driving agricultural innovations in smallholder farming systems. Using relevant examples, examine the major challenges that limit women and youth participation in agricultural innovation and propose policy interventions to enhance their inclusion.                             [20 marks]  3. With examples discuss the relevance of value addition and agribusiness development innovations in agricultural development. Cite any relevant case study from Africa.           [20 marks]         4. Innovation in agriculture is driven by multiple triggers that create the need for new technologies, practices, and systems to improve productivity, sustainability and resilience. As an extensionist, how would you facilitate the adoption of innovation triggered by climate change?         [20 marks]  

Innovations for Agricultural Development

AAB 1404

  1   JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY  SCHOOL OF AGRICULTURAL AND FOOD SCIENCES THIRD YEAR FIRST SEMESTER UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN ANIMAL SCIENCE   2024/2025ACADEMIC YEAR SIAYA  COURSE CODE: AAB 1404 COURSE TITLE: Sheep and Goat Production EXAM VENUE:                                                                    STREAM: BSc. Animal Science, Y4, S2 DATE:                                                                                      EXAM SESSION:  TIME: 2 HOURS                             Instructions: 1. Answer ALL the questions in section A and any TWO in section B. 2. Candidates are advised not to write on question paper. 3. Candidates must hand in their answer booklets to the invigilator while in the examination room.       OASIS OF KNOWLEDGE  2  SECTION A [30 MARKS] Answer ALL questions from this Section.  1. Explain the following terms: a. Flushing       [2 Marks]  b. Toxaemia       [2 Marks] c. Pen mating       [2 Marks] d. Mothering ability      [2 Marks] e. Fly strike        [2 marks]  2. a. How does the feeding behaviour of sheep and goats influences their nutrition?                            [4 Marks]  b. What are the three factors that influence age at puberty in sheep and goats? [6 marks]           3.  a. Outline two characteristics that make sheep and goats suitable for the extensive system of production in arid and semi-arid lands.                      [4 marks] b. State three advantages of hand mating.                       [6 Marks]      SECTION B  [40 MARKS] Answer any TWO QUESTIONS from this Section.  4. Discuss Four factors that influence kid/lamb survival in sheep and goats in the extensive system of production.         [20 Marks]  5. Giving appropriate examples, argue the effect of nutrition on: a. Age at first kidding/lambing      [10 Marks] b. Reproductive performance of rams     [10 Marks]   6. Discuss Four parameters used as measures of reproductive performance in sheep and goats.            [20 Marks]      

Sheep and Goat Production

ICB1306

 Page 1 of 3   JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY SCHOOL OF INFORMATICS AND INNOVATIVE SYSTEMS DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE & SOFTWARE ENGINEERING UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR SCIENCE IN SECURITY AND FORENICS/BIS 3RD YEAR, 2ND SEMESTER 2024/2025 ACADEMIC YEAR MAIN CAMPUS   COURSE CODE: ICB1306  COURSE TITLE: INFORMATION SYSTEM CONTROL AND AUDIT EXAM VENUE:    LAB 12   STREAM:  DATE: 25/4/2025    EXAM SESSION: 9.00-11.00 TIME: 2.00 HOURS  INSTRUCTIONS  1. Answer QUESTION ONE (Compulsory) and ANY other TWO questions 2. Candidates are advised not to write on the question paper 3. Candidates must hand in their answer booklets to the invigilator while in the examination room 4. No mobile devices (e.g. laptops, phones. e.t.c.) are allowed into the Examination Room   Page 2 of 3   QUESTION ONE          (30 MARKS) a) Explain the importance of the Information Systems Auditing Process and discuss the key phases involved.         (8 marks)  b) Describe the role of IT governance in an organization and discuss how it contributes to effective information system control.      (8 marks)  c) Discuss the key controls that should be implemented during the Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation phase to ensure security and auditability.            (8 marks)  d) Explain the concept of Business Resilience and describe the critical components of a comprehensive Business Resilience plan.      (6 marks) QUESTION TWO          (20 MARKS) a) Discuss the key principles of effective Information Asset Protection and describe the common threats to information assets.      (6 marks)  b) Explain the importance of risk assessment in the Information Systems Auditing Process and describe how it is conducted.       (6 marks)  c) Describe the key components of an effective access control system and discuss their importance in information security.       (4 marks)  d) Explain the role of data classification in protecting information assets and describe the common data classification levels.       (4 marks)  QUESTION THREE         (20 MARKS) a) Describe the key audit procedures that should be performed during Information Systems Operations to ensure compliance and security.     (6 marks)  b) Explain the concept of change management and discuss its importance in maintaining the integrity of information systems.       (6 marks)  c) Discuss the key considerations when conducting a post-implementation review of an information system.         (4 marks)  d) Explain the importance of continuous monitoring in information system control and audit.           (4 marks)  Page 3 of 3  QUESTION FOUR          (20 MARKS) a) Describe the key elements of a comprehensive IT audit report and discuss the importance of effective communication of audit findings.     (6 marks)  b) Discuss the ethical considerations that should be taken into account by an IT auditor during an audit engagement.        (6 marks)  c) Explain the concept of IT general controls and discuss their importance in ensuring the reliability of information systems.       (4 marks)  d) Describe the key audit procedures for evaluating the effectiveness of IT security policies and procedures.         (4 marks) QUESTION FIVE          (20 MARKS) a) Discuss the key components of a disaster recovery plan and explain their importance in ensuring business continuity.        (6 marks)  b) Explain the concept of incident response and describe the key steps involved in incident handling.          (6 marks)  c) Describe the role of vulnerability assessments and penetration testing in protecting information assets.         (4 marks)  d) Discuss the importance of data backup and recovery procedures in ensuring data integrity and availability.         (4 marks)  This is the last printed page 

INFORMATION SYSTEM CONTROL AND AUDIT

ITB 9302 / SCS 318

                                                                     JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY  SCHOOL OF INFORMATICS AND INNOVATIVE SYSTEMS UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF ACTUARIAL SCIENCE WITH IT 3TH YEAR 2ND SEMESTER    2024/2025 ACADEMIC YEAR MAIN CAMPUS COURSE CODE: ITB 9302 / SCS 318 COURSE TITLE: DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS DATE: 23/4/2025                       TIME:  15.00-17.00 TIME: 2   HOURS     VENUE: ………….  Instructions: 1. Answer Section A and any other TWO Sections 2. Candidates are advised not to write on the question paper. 3. Candidates MUST hand in their answer booklets to the invigilator while in the examination room. 4. Mobile phones are NOT allowed in the examination room.          SECTION A: 20 Marks (Each question carries 1 mark) 1. Define an algorithm. (1 mark)  2. What is asymptotic notation, and why is it important in algorithm analysis? (3 marks) 3. Differentiate between Big-O, Theta (Θ), and Omega (Ω) notations. (3 marks)  4. State the time complexity of the following algorithms: (4 marks) a) Binary Search b) Merge Sort c) Quick Sort d) Dijkstra’s Algorithm  5. Explain the Divide and Conquer strategy with an example. (3 marks)  6. How does fractional knapsack differ from 0/1 knapsack? (3 marks)  7. What is Huffman coding, and why is it used? (3 marks)  8. Compare Prim’s and Kruskal’s Algorithm for finding the minimum spanning tree. (3 marks)  9. What is the Longest Common Subsequence (LCS), and where is it used? (3 marks)  10. Define Backtracking and give one example where it is used. (3 marks)  SECTION B: 20 Marks 1. State Master’s Theorem (5 marks) 2. Solve the following recurrence relations using Master’s Theorem:  (6 marks)    T(n) = 2T(n/2) + n     T(n) = 4T(n/2) + n2    T(n) =3T(n/3)+O(1) 3. Solve the following recurrence relations using the recursion tree method: (4 marks)  T(n) = 3T(n/2) + n    T(n) = 5T(n/4) + n2 4. Derive the time complexity of Merge Sort using recurrence relations. (5 marks)      SECTION C:  1. How does Branch and Bound improve the performance of the Traveling Salesman Problem (TSP) compared to brute-force? (10 marks) 2. Critically analyze why backtracking is inefficient for large problem spaces and suggest alternatives. (10 marks)  SECTION D: 20 Marks (10 marks each) 1. Describe the Breadth-First Search (BFS) algorithm for traversing a graph. Provide the key steps, pseudocode, and discuss its applications. Analyze the time complexity of BFS.. 2. Define a binary search tree (BST). Describe the conditions that a binary tree must satisfy to be considered a BST. Provide an algorithm to find the minimum value in a BST.  SECTION E: 20 Marks (10 marks each) 1. Explain the concept of a doubly linked list. Compare it with a singly linked list, highlighting advantages and disadvantages. Provide a code snippet for inserting a node at the end of a doubly linked list. 2. Compare and contrast QuickSort and MergeSort. Include their time complexity analyses, advantages, and situations where one might be preferred over the other. Provide pseudocode for both algorithms. 

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS

PNB 1407

    JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY SCHOOL OF SPATIAL PLANNING UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT AND RENEWABLE ENERGY  YEAR FOUR SEMESTER I 2024/2025 ACADEMIC YEAR   CENTRE: MAIN CAMPUS COURSE CODE: PNB 1407 COURSE TITLE: SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT EXAM VENUE:    CRAFT ROOM                   STREAM: BSc. CONSTRUCTION MGT/RENEWABLE ENERGY [3.2] DATE:  23/4/2024     EXAM SESSION: 15.00-17.00            TIME: 2 HOURS Instructions: 1. Answer question 1 (compulsory) and ANY other 2 questions. 2. Candidates are advised not to write on the question paper. Candidates must hand in their answer booklets to the invigilator while in the examination room.               OASIS OF KNOWLEDGE  QUESTION ONE Question 1 a) With examples and in the context of sustainable development, explain the meaning of development                                                                                                       (6 marks)                                                                                                    b) Using six examples analyze indicators for Sustainable Development               (6 marks) c) Explain six characteristics of weak sustainability                                               (6 marks) d) Analyze parameters that link environment and development to sustainability   (6 marks) e) Analyze the precautionary principle as an overriding minimum guide for sustainable development                                                                                                         (6  marks) Question 2 (i) Critically analyze  key challenges and potential solutions for achieving sustainable development in a (named) county in Kenya                                                  10 marks)  (ii) Using examples explain how Kenya has integrated the Sustainability concept  into her development agenda                                                                                               (10 marks) Question 3 With examples discuss how Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) promote sustainability of an economy                                                                                                                                    (20 marks) Question 4 Discuss how the following sectors impact the Sustainability agenda: (a) Globalization                                                                                                                                           (10 mark) (b) Innovation and Technology                                                                                           (10 marks) Question 5 Explain how principles of sustainable development promote strong sustainability           (20 marks)   

SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT

APB 9206

JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY   SCHOOL OF AGRICULTURE AND FOOD SECURITY  2nd YEAR SECOND SEMESTER EXAMINATION (For 2024/2025 Academic Year) FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN HORTICULTURE COURSE CODE: APB 9206 COURSE TITLE: CELL AND TISSUE CULTURE AND TRANSGENIC TECHNOLOGIES INSTRUCTION TO CADIDATES                                          Answer Question ONE and any other THREE questions TIME: THREE HOURS   QUESTION ONE                 a) Define tissue culture and list its three main types [ 4 marks] b) What are the advantages and limitations of tissue culture technology? [4 marks] c) Name two physicochemical properties of culture media that are critical for cell growth [2 marks] d) What is the role of serum in animal cell culture media? [ 2 marks] e) Define totipotency and its significance in plant tissue culture [3 marks] f) Differentiate between organogenesis and somatic embryogenesis [2 marks]  g) What is micropropagation, and why is it important in crop improvement? [3 marks] h) List two hormones used in callus induction and their roles. [2 marks] i) What is artificial seed technology, and how is it produced? [4 marks]     QUESTION TWO              A researcher wants to develop a disease-resistant crop using tissue culture techniques. Design a step-by-step protocol for achieving this goal, including callus induction, organogenesis, and acclimatization of plants [15 marks] QUESTION THREE      A farmer approaches you with a problem of low yield in a crop due to soil-borne pathogens. How would you use micropropagation and transgenic technologies to provide a solution? [15 marks]  QUESTION FOUR       Compare and contrast animal cell culture techniques with plant tissue culture. Highlight the key differences in media requirements and applications [15 marks]       QUESTION FIVE     What are transgenic technologies? Discuss their scope and importance in crop improvement, with examples [15 marks]   

CELL AND TISSUE CULTURE AND TRANSGENIC TECHNOLOGIES

AAB 1304

  1  OASIS OF KNOWLEDGE JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY SCHOOL OF AGRICULTURAL AND FOOD SCIENCES UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN ANIMAL SCIENCE   2024/2025 ACADEMIC YEAR SIAYA COURSE CODE: AAB 1304       COURSE TITLE: PRINCIPLES OF MOLECULAR GENETICS EXAM VENUE:   STREAMS: BSc. Animal Science  DATE:                                EXAM SESSION: TIME: 2 HOURS Instructions: 1. Answer ALL questions in section A and ANY other 2 Questions in section B. 2. Candidates are advised not to write on question paper. 3. Candidates must hand in their answer booklets to the invigilator while in the examination room.                2  SECTION A [30 MARKS]   Answer ALL questions in this Section.  1 a. Define molecular genetics            ( 1 mark) b. Explain the importance of methylation state of DNA in gene expression        (3 marks) c. State and briefly explain the process pre-mRNA goes through to maturation (3 marks) d. Using a diagram explain how genes are structured to ensure their expression (3 marks) 2 a.  Describe four common types of mutations that can alter the genetic code      (4 marks) b. Name two types of plant genes, their regulation site and function                   (2 marks) c. State and explain the vector independent gene transfers                                   (4 marks)         3. a. State and briefly explain three methods of direct gene transfer             (3 marks) b. What difference between RNA and DNA helps to explain the greater stability of DNA   and the implication of this feature on the function of DNA?                               ( 4 marks)  c. Explain how molecular information may improve the efficiency of backcross breeding schemes               (3 marks)    SECTION B  [40 MARKS]  Answer any TWO QUESTIONS in this Section.  Q4. (a) Agro bacterium-mediated gene transfer is a very important phenomenon in molecular biology. Discuss it and its application in plant improvement.                                    (20 marks). Q5. Transcription and translation are two main processes in gene expression. Discuss in details these two processes.                                                                                                  (20 marks). Q6. Discuss molecular markers used in plant improvement; highlight their merits, demerits and applications           (20 marks).  

PRINCIPLES OF MOLECULAR GENETICS

AAS	3326

JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY  SCHOOL OF AGRICULTURE AND FOOD SCIENCES   YEAR III SEMESTER 2 EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF ANIMAL SCIENCE  AAS 3326: Fish Farming And Production  MAIN EXAMS   DATE: APRIL, 2025                                                                               TIME: 2 HOURS INSTRUCTIONS: Answer Question ONE and Any Other TWO Questions. QUESTION ONE – 30 MARKS 1. Differential the following terms I. Systemic and Parenteral treatment                                                                          2 marks  II. Monogenean and Digenean parasites                                                                      2 marks  III. Bisexuality and hermaphroditism reproduction                                                      2 marks  IV. Fish larvae and fry                                                                                                   2 marks  2. Explain how Fish farming contributes to the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    3 Marks 3. Describe two methods of organic fertilizer application in an earthen pond                   4 marks  4. State four benefits of hatchery fingerlings production                                                     2 marks 5.  List four environmental methods of prevention and control of fish diseases in aquaculture                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                          2 marks 7. Explain four factors to consider before using chemical treatment in aquaculture                                                                                                                                                  3 marks 8. List four impacts of shallow fish ponds on production                                                    2 marks 9. State four important of liming in aquaculture                                                   3 marks  10. List four fish disease diagnostic features                                                                     3 marks  QUESTION TWO  1. Discuss three causes of fish disease in aquaculture                                                          6 marks 2. Discuss aquaculture managerial practices that help prevent fish stress                            8 marks 3. Describe three procedures used in the final processing of fish product                           6 marks QUESTION THREE 1. Discuss artificial propagation of African catfish on fingerlings production                   8 marks  2. Discusss four prevention methods of drug resistance in fish health management           8 marks 3. Discuss the importance of pond fertilization in aquaculture                                            4 marks  QUESTION FOUR 1. Discuss four desirable characteristics of aquaculture-cultured fish species                     8 marks 2. Explain prevention and control of aquatic weeds in aquaculture                                    6 marks 3. Describe vertical and horizontal transmission of infectious agents into fish farming      6 marks QUESTION FIVE  1. Discuss the advantages of farming tilapia fish species                                                     4 marks  2. Describe five ways of improving dissolved oxygen content in fish pond water.            8 marks 3. Discuss five logical sequences a farmer should follow when constructing a fish pond.                                                                                                                                                 8 marks                                                                                                

FISH FARMING AND PRODUCTION

ZLB 9422

      JARAMOGI OGINGA ODINGA UNIVERSITY OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY SCHOOL OF EDUCATION, HUMANITIES AND SOCIAL SCIENCES DEPARTMENT OF LANGUAGES, LITERARY AND COMMUNICATION STUDIES UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF EDUCATION (ARTS) WITH IT 4TH YEAR 2ND SEMESTER 2024/2025 ACADEMIC YEAR MAIN CAMPUS COURSE CODE: ZLB 9422 COURSE TITLE: KISWAHILI SEMANTICS EXAM VENUE:LAB 4  STREAM: BED-ARTS (REGULAR) DATE:14/4/25    EXAM SESSION: 9-11.00 AM TIME: 2 HOURS   Instructions: 1. Answer Question ONE (COMPULSORY) and ANY other 2 questions. 2. Candidates are advised not to write on the question paper. 3. Candidates must hand in their answer booklets to the invigilator while in the examination room.  OASIS OF KNOWLEDGE 2 SWALI LA KWANZA (LAZIMA) a) Kwa kurejelea matumizi yake katika uchanganuzi wa kisemantiki, onyesha tofauti kati ya dhana zifuatazo: i) Monosemia na Hiponimu (Alama 4) ii) Kipashio cha Kileksia na Kipashio cha Kisarufi (Alama 4) b) Jadili sifa muhimu SITA zinazopaswa kumwongoza mwalimu wa lugha katika utambuzi wa Kamusi ya Pedagojia bora. Fafanua hoja zako kwa mifano halisi. (Alama 12) c) Fafanua vigezo muhimu vizingatiwavyo katika uainishaji wa Kamusi katika kategoria tofauti tofauti. (Alama 10) SWALI LA PILI ‘Sinonimu kamili ni muhali kupatikana katika lugha; visawe aghalabu hutofaitiana kwa njia anuwai’ (Chacha & Malangwa, 2019). Fafanua kauli hii kwa mifano kutoka kwa mfumo wa lugha ya Kiswahili. (Alama 20) SWALI LA TATU Pamoja na maendeleo ya kasi yashuhudiwayo katika taaluma za Isimu, kitengo cha semantiki hakikui wala kupanuka kama vilivyo viwango vyake vingine. Kwa kutoa ithibati , jadili changamoto zinazoipelekea hali hii. (Alama 20) SWALI LA NNE ‘Chimbuko la Maana Husishi aghalabu ni Maana Msingi ya neno linalohusika.’ Itathmini kauli hii kwa kuangazia angalau kategoria TANO za Maana Husishi. (Alama 20) SWALI LA TANO Kwa kurejelea mifanokutoka kwa matumizi ya lugha katika jamii, pambanua nadharia zozote NNE za maana. (Alama 20) 

Not a member yet